Baseball MFEs: Why Is 82-80 2 Games Over .500, Not 1 Game?
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Date: September 30th, 2024 8:25 PM Author: Filthy Olive Theater Puppy
this has always bothered me. i get *why* the way it's always said makes sense, i.e., if you're 82-80, you can lose 2 games and still be .500
but i still think "1 game over .500" is the more accurate nomenclature because if you're 82-80 and you lost one game you won, then you'd be at .500. one flipped game putting you from over .500 to .500, to me, means you're 1 game over .500
beep beep beep and all, but this has always bothered the fuck out of me. neither is wrong per se. i just think the way it's not done is more right.
(http://www.autoadmit.com/thread.php?thread_id=5604034&forum_id=2\u0026mark_id=5310905",#48147937) |
Date: September 30th, 2024 8:43 PM Author: Exciting institution
Because they're almost always talking about this stat prospectively -- how the team can either get up to 500, or drop below 500.
It would be weird to talk about how if only they hadn't lost that squeaker to the Rays in the bottom of the 9th back in June, they would be 500 right now.
(http://www.autoadmit.com/thread.php?thread_id=5604034&forum_id=2\u0026mark_id=5310905",#48147996) |
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Date: September 30th, 2024 8:54 PM Author: House-broken out-of-control spot
not in the middle of a season
what you're describing is the logic that is used for in-season record comparisons between teams. you're a half game above or below a team if you have one more win or one more loss, which means they haven't completed the same number of games to be able to have the same record.
when people talk about being a game over .500 the intuition they're relying on is that if the team loses the next one game they are back to .500. it's with respect to that team itself over time. two different conventions for two different things.
(http://www.autoadmit.com/thread.php?thread_id=5604034&forum_id=2\u0026mark_id=5310905",#48148039) |
Date: October 1st, 2024 1:24 AM Author: cerebral cuck
"because if you're 82-80 and you lost one game you won, then you'd be at .500."
And if you lose the next game, you still won't be down to .500. So what?
(http://www.autoadmit.com/thread.php?thread_id=5604034&forum_id=2\u0026mark_id=5310905",#48148747) |
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Date: October 1st, 2024 7:44 AM Author: Filthy Olive Theater Puppy
"x more grand slams than" is totally different than "x games over 500"
this is totally stupid because they dont play H2H in every grand slam final.
the appropriate tennis analogy is that djoker is 31-29 h2h over lance. i'd say djoker is one match over .500 in the h2h because if any one of those 60 matches flipped, they'd be at .500. they're never playing again so lance cant just win 2 to settle the score
(http://www.autoadmit.com/thread.php?thread_id=5604034&forum_id=2\u0026mark_id=5310905",#48149001) |
Date: October 1st, 2024 8:33 PM Author: Sepia domesticated crackhouse
Talmud Hypothetical
Team A is 82-80
Team B is 82-79
How many games “behind” is Team B?
(http://www.autoadmit.com/thread.php?thread_id=5604034&forum_id=2\u0026mark_id=5310905",#48151951) |
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